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Post by account_disabled on Jan 23, 2018 7:03:50 GMT
Hello, A comparison was brought up in another thread between Christian morals and atheist morals, with the implication that atheists can be just as moral as Christians, if not more so. I propose the contrast is spoiled unless it is being made between atheists who grew up in a fully integrated atheist environment, without Christian influences, and Christians from Christian societies. For Christendom has not completely died, and whatever morals atheists retain (and there are many) they can never refute the notion that these are but the vestiges of Christian influence, soon to wither away once completely removed from the root. (I suppose an atheist could attempt to say that the Christian virtues owe themselves to atheism, but the historical burden of proof is almost insuperable). Perhaps a better contrast would be this: are there non-Christian societies, past or present, that one would rather live in than live in Christian societies, past or present? Would Augustus' Rome be better than Washington's America; or Louis IX's France better than Kim Jong-un's N. Korea? Thanks I didn't find the right solution from the internet. References: debatingchristianity.com/forum/viewtopic.php?t=33153Landing Page Explainers
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